by Thatcher » Sat Jan 04, 2014 10:42 pm
What we're saying today is that a woman can force fatherhood on a man(financially at least). How is that different from a man forcing a child on a woman? I don't think either should be the case. I don't think a woman should be forced to have a child, and I don't think a man should be forced to be a father. But the world is not perfect. The difficulty, here though, is legislating it. And I have thought of this lately. How would a court decide that a man didn't want to be a father? On his word? Who is to say he didn't change his mind after the fact? I understand that there are men out there that get a woman pregnant that don't want the child, but how is it possible for a court to prove that? Unfortunately, there is no other way but to have him support the child.