Edit, after really screwing the dog the first time. I've changed this OP and thus hopefully make the discussion more focused
Anyway, thought I'd start a series of threads in philosophy, on actual philosophical topics which hopefully anyone can participate in, as, well, the philosophy forum so far on PCF has been a little bit stale (no offence intended, its just debating anarchist principles only has so much broad appeal).
To wit, I intend to start this with a topic I think everyone should have some sort of opinion on:
Specifically I want to kick off the debate between morality being on the one hand Subjective (that is, morality consists only in the moral opinions of human beings, it is mind dependent) vs. Objective (certain things are true of morality regardless of the total opinions of all humans alive today e.g. everyone may be wrong, it may even be the case that certain things would be true of morality if there were no human beings).
And because I don't want to scupper this by just ranting, I'm going set the trend of BJPFT's by simply presenting a framing question after a brief explanation (which has just happened, yo!) and present a simple but not complete version of my opinion.
Caveat 1- I am arguing from a materialist standpoint
Caveat 2- I am not presuming free will
Caveat 3- Let's leave rationality aside for now.
Ok.
Lets do it.
Given the above 'vs' for this week being contingent on 'well it depends on what your talking about' allow me to start with the question: You have a moral entity that has committed no wrongs, is it morally blameless to kill this entity?
That's just a question to focus debate. The broader topic I want to address here, is that from an explanatory standpoint. The apparently obvious conclusion that morals are simply subjective, does explain moral disagreement across people, times and cultures. But does not, explain apparent moral agreement. For if morals have no basis outside of the mind or culture they are conceived in. how can explain, how, under their own lights there can be apparent agreement over matters such as the innate revulsion at certain patterns of behaviour e.g. unprovoked aggression. Or certain 'moral phenomenon' e.g. betrayal.
What I want to suggest on the other hand, though, I cannot offer a full positive thesis. That if morality were in some respect 'linked' to the fact we are social animals and some how certain moral outlooks are 'selected for'. Then there may in fact be some ground to consider morality in some important way as objective.
So that's what I would like to discuss, though it appears obvious to many on consideration that morals are subjective. Does this as an explanatory hypothesis for the nature of morality really explain morality as a phenomenon the best.
If it does not, what is morality?
If it in fact does, how can apparent moral agreement be explained?
-importantly here, under their own lights refers to a persons epistemic or cultural outlook.
Now, in the words of the great philosopher Mario "lessa go!"